I have a web site built using ASP.NET 2.0 and Visual Studio 2005. If also
have a C# assembly that was compiled using VS 2003, so this assembly runs
under the 1.1 framework.
If I use this assembly built for the 1.1 framework within my web app that
uses the 2.0 framework, is there any performance penalty incurred here? In
other words, am I creating some sort of "cross boundary" communication that
has to occur between the 2.0 framework and 1.1 framework? Or is there no
performance penalty and just a matter of the 1.1 code not having access to
specific features of the 2.0 framework.
The dilemma I have is that I have to redistribute to developers my C# class
library. Some developers are building ASP.NET 2.0 apps, while others are
using 1.1. I do NOT want to wind up creating separate installations, one
that has my 2.0 compiled assembly and another that has my 1.1 compiled
assembly.
I could do this within one installer package and dynamically determine the
..NET framework and install the appropriate version of my assembly
accordingly. However even this approach has major problems. Specifically,
I could easily see how someone would install on a ASP.NET 2.0 machine, and
then wind up transferring my assembly DLL to another machine that only had
the 1.1 framework which from what I understand would break things. Or
likewise they may install on 1.1 and then transfer the DLL to a 2.0 machine
and never realize the assembly was really running under the 1.1 framework on
that machine despite their app using 2.0.
What is a developer to do?
Steve
1  1130 
Answered in the framework NG.
"Steve Franks" <pl****@postrep lyhere.com> wrote in message
news:cZ******** ************@co mcast.com... I have a web site built using ASP.NET 2.0 and Visual Studio 2005. If also
have a C# assembly that was compiled using VS 2003, so this assembly runs
under the 1.1 framework.
If I use this assembly built for the 1.1 framework within my web app that
uses the 2.0 framework, is there any performance penalty incurred here?
In
other words, am I creating some sort of "cross boundary" communication
that
has to occur between the 2.0 framework and 1.1 framework? Or is there no
performance penalty and just a matter of the 1.1 code not having access to
specific features of the 2.0 framework.
The dilemma I have is that I have to redistribute to developers my C#
class
library. Some developers are building ASP.NET 2.0 apps, while others are
using 1.1. I do NOT want to wind up creating separate installations, one
that has my 2.0 compiled assembly and another that has my 1.1 compiled
assembly.
I could do this within one installer package and dynamically determine the
.NET framework and install the appropriate version of my assembly
accordingly. However even this approach has major problems.
Specifically,
I could easily see how someone would install on a ASP.NET 2.0 machine, and
then wind up transferring my assembly DLL to another machine that only had
the 1.1 framework which from what I understand would break things. Or
likewise they may install on 1.1 and then transfer the DLL to a 2.0
machine
and never realize the assembly was really running under the 1.1 framework
on
that machine despite their app using 2.0.
What is a developer to do?
Steve This thread has been closed and replies have been disabled. Please start a new discussion. Similar topics | |
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