"Federica T" <fedina_chicca@N_O_Spam_libero.it> wrote in message
news:ck**********@atlantis.cu.mi.it...
I've got this question:
Is it possible to assign the 'current owner' using a query like the
following one:
set current schema OWNER1 (in DB2 sql, this allow me to reference the
tables
without an explicit indication of the owner (es: after this query I can
simply write 'Select * from dummy', instead of 'Select * from
OWNER1.dummy')).
Thank you
Federica
Not really - in MSSQL, it's considered good practice to always fully specify
the object owner. There is a SETUSER command which allows a sysadmin to
impersonate another user, but it's deprecated and it doesn't support Windows
authentication which is the preferred authentication method.
Simon