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unexpected result

hi
look at this code

include <stdio.h>
int main(void)
{
int i,j=2;
i=j++ * ++j * j++;
printf("%d %d",i,j);
return 0;
}

acc. to me the values of i & j are 27,5 respectively & rightly so as i
ran this on turbo c++ compiler but if i ran this on lcc-win32 compiler
i got 32 & 5 for i & j respectively.
why this is so

Mar 8 '06
62 3808
Richard Bos said:
"Richard G. Riley" <rg****@gmail.c om> wrote:
it whats known in
the real world as a bit of humour.
Actually, I gather that in Mr. Heathfield's part of the real world it's
what's known as an insufficient defense in a slander case.


Minor nit: It's written, so I believe it's actually libel.
You're lucky that he's not the kind to take legal umbrage easily.


And I'm lucky I'm not the kind of person to call people liars and vandals.
I'd hate to be that kind of person.

--
Richard Heathfield
"Usenet is a strange place" - dmr 29/7/1999
http://www.cpax.org.uk
email: rjh at above domain (but drop the www, obviously)
Mar 14 '06 #41
>>What about commenting on the advice "not to learn c"? Any thoughts on
that? Or did they not impress you either? Or are your jumping to
protect Richards honor? I suspect Richard is big and ugly enough to do
that himself.


This is really not in a good taste. I expect lot of professional
attitude from people posting in here.
Words like *ugly* and pointing to someone personally really puts me
off.
Its not a school fight to impress or to show off by aiming at others
personally.
Hope such kind of behaviour is avoided

Mar 14 '06 #42
In article <dv**********@n wrdmz01.dmz.ncs .ea.ibs-infra.bt.com>,
Richard Heathfield <in*****@invali d.invalid> wrote:
Richard Bos said:
"Richard G. Riley" <rg****@gmail.c om> wrote:
it whats known in
the real world as a bit of humour.
Actually, I gather that in Mr. Heathfield's part of the real world it's
what's known as an insufficient defense in a slander case.

Minor nit: It's written, so I believe it's actually libel.


[OT]

In these parts, the "slander" vs "libel" distinction applies for
civil cases, but the appropriate criminal code section lumps everything
together as "defamatory libel". So hereabouts, written words would
always be "libel", but spoken words could be termed either "slander"
or "libel".
--
If you lie to the compiler, it will get its revenge. -- Henry Spencer
Mar 14 '06 #43
On 2006-03-14, Richard Bos <rl*@hoekstra-uitgeverij.nl> wrote:
"Richard G. Riley" <rg****@gmail.c om> wrote:
On 2006-03-12, Keith Thompson <ks***@mib.or g> wrote:
>
> You just called Richard Heathfield a liar. I suggest you either back
> up your accusation or apologize.
>
Oh please. And I also called his pint a poof.

Or I could ask him to back up his claim.

This might have escaped your notice but I included a smiley and also
suggested he doctored the code to scare his friend : it whats known in
the real world as a bit of humour.


Actually, I gather that in Mr. Heathfield's part of the real world it's
what's known as an insufficient defense in a slander case.


You misspelled "libel".
You're lucky that he's not the kind to take legal umbrage easily.


I've heard that in most sane parts of the world, if something can be
shown to be sufficiently unlikely to be taken seriously by any third
party as to not do actual damage to the "victim"'s reputation, that is a
sufficient defense in a libel case. Unfortunately, for these purposes
I'm told that the UK's legal system is not as 'sane' as those in most
other parts of the world.

So, as long as he never actually visits there, he should be fine.
Mar 14 '06 #44
In article <sl************ **********@rand om.yi.org>,
Jordan Abel <ra*******@gmai l.com> wrote:
I've heard that in most sane parts of the world, if something can be
shown to be sufficiently unlikely to be taken seriously by any third
party as to not do actual damage to the "victim"'s reputation, that is a
sufficient defense in a libel case. Unfortunately, for these purposes
I'm told that the UK's legal system is not as 'sane' as those in most
other parts of the world. So, as long as he never actually visits there, he should be fine.


[OT]

Disclaimer: IANAL

UK law can be used to sue for "publicatio n" in the UK,
even if neither party is a UK resident. A previous case has -already-
established that posting to a newsgroup that is available in the UK
qualifies as "publishing " in the UK, and the third-party libel
lawsuit scenario has -already- happened and was successful.

If a libel lawsuit is filed against someone in the UK and that
person choses not to defend against it (e.g. because they don't
want to bother with the expense of travelling and staying in the UK),
then the most likely result (for a properly-filed suit) would be
a default judgement. If the person then choose not to travel to the UK
in order to avoid collection upon the judgement, then the person
would also have to avoid doing business in the UK (even as simple
as ordering a CD from a UK distributor), as any funds or property
of theirs that enters UK jurisdiction would be subject to seizure.
{I don't have any information about other possible consequences.}
--
I was very young in those days, but I was also rather dim.
-- Christopher Priest
Mar 14 '06 #45
On 2006-03-14, Walter Roberson <ro******@ibd.n rc-cnrc.gc.ca> wrote:
In article <sl************ **********@rand om.yi.org>,
Jordan Abel <ra*******@gmai l.com> wrote:
I've heard that in most sane parts of the world, if something can be
shown to be sufficiently unlikely to be taken seriously by any third
party as to not do actual damage to the "victim"'s reputation, that is a
sufficient defense in a libel case. Unfortunately, for these purposes
I'm told that the UK's legal system is not as 'sane' as those in most
other parts of the world.

So, as long as he never actually visits there, he should be fine.


[OT]

Disclaimer: IANAL

UK law can be used to sue for "publicatio n" in the UK,
even if neither party is a UK resident. A previous case has -already-
established that posting to a newsgroup that is available in the UK
qualifies as "publishing " in the UK, and the third-party libel
lawsuit scenario has -already- happened and was successful.

If a libel lawsuit is filed against someone in the UK and that
person choses not to defend against it (e.g. because they don't
want to bother with the expense of travelling and staying in the UK),
then the most likely result (for a properly-filed suit) would be
a default judgement. If the person then choose not to travel to the UK
in order to avoid collection upon the judgement, then the person
would also have to avoid doing business in the UK (even as simple
as ordering a CD from a UK distributor), as any funds or property
of theirs that enters UK jurisdiction would be subject to seizure.
{I don't have any information about other possible consequences.}


Say both parties are citizens of the US. Could the one who sued for
libel then, subsequently, be sued in the US for malicious prosecution,
barratry, or something like that? [they sued in UK jurisdiction,
presumably, because they knew that what was done was not in fact libel,
and were taking advantage of the lax standards of proof in the UK, or
even of the likelihood of a default judgement.]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malicious_prosecution
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Barratry
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Forum_shopping
Mar 14 '06 #46
In article <sl************ **********@rand om.yi.org>,
Jordan Abel <ra*******@gmai l.com> wrote:
[still OT]
Say both parties are citizens of the US. Could the one who sued for
libel then, subsequently, be sued in the US for malicious prosecution,
barratry, or something like that? [they sued in UK jurisdiction,
presumably, because they knew that what was done was not in fact libel,
and were taking advantage of the lax standards of proof in the UK, or
even of the likelihood of a default judgement.]


There's a maxim that goes something like "Anyone can be sued for any
reason" with its addendum "The difficulty is getting it to stick."
The foundation of libel (and slander and defamation) is that
there is damage (or attempted damage) to someone's reputation.

Defence against libel lies in showing that the circumstances did not
give rise to damage to the reputation, or in showing that the damage
was lawful within the constraints of the relevant law.

It is entirely possible for a court to rule that libel (damage to
reputation) has occured, but that the defendant had a lawful excuse and
so cannot be punished for the libelous act. Judges have been known to
issue harsh scoldings in cases where the circumstances do not permit
them to convict; in many countries, those scoldings become matters of
public record.

The UK does not have lax standards of proof for libel: what it
has is a different set of lawful excuses.

In USA law, if a libelous statement is found to be true,
then the truth of that statement is considered an "absolute defence".
That would not stop the judge from ruling that a statement was
indeed shamefully libelous: it just stops them from doing anything about it.

Also, the USA has a relatively new law of "criminal libel", in
which the truth of the statement is NOT a defence, if the courts are
satisfied that the statement was made "in reckless disregard for the truth".
Thus if a tabloid publishes a shopping list of invented attacks on
a celeb, one of which happpens by accident to be true, then the
celeb can sue on the whole without having to implicitly admit the
truth of the one portion by -not- sueing about the one.

In Canadian federal law, the truth of a statement is not a defence --
though in some circumstances, a reasonable -belief- in the truth of the
statement is. -Every- available defence is qualified by the requirement
that the statements did not go too far beyond what was "reasonable "
under the circumstances. Thus slagging someone a little is sometimes
excusable, but slagging them a lot is not, even if everything said was
true.

UK law (or precident) goes further and [if I understand correctly]
basically says, "If you don't have a good reason to actively say
these things, then don't say them." What qualifies as a good enough
reason has been evolving over the last decade or so, with more
"public interest" allowances being accepted.
I would -think- that in order for someone in the US to prove
malicious prosecution or barratry with respect to a libel suit
that was run in the UK, it would probably have to be proved
that there was no -reasonable- chance that the original libel
lawsuit could succeed there, or that there were ulterior motives
behind the filing of the suit. But court rulings continually
surprise me...
--
I was very young in those days, but I was also rather dim.
-- Christopher Priest
Mar 14 '06 #47
On 2006-03-14, Walter Roberson <ro******@ibd.n rc-cnrc.gc.ca> wrote:
In article <sl************ **********@rand om.yi.org>,
Jordan Abel <ra*******@gmai l.com> wrote:
[still OT]

It is entirely possible for a court to rule that libel (damage to
reputation) has occured, but that the defendant had a lawful excuse and
so cannot be punished for the libelous act. Judges have been known to
issue harsh scoldings in cases where the circumstances do not permit
them to convict; in many countries, those scoldings become matters of
public record.

The UK does not have lax standards of proof for libel: what it
has is a different set of lawful excuses.
There is, however, the fact that you don't have to prove it at all if
the defendant can't or won't travel to the UK.
In USA law, if a libelous statement is found to be true, then the
truth of that statement is considered an "absolute defence". That
would not stop the judge from ruling that a statement was indeed
shamefully libelous: it just stops them from doing anything about it.
What I meant is that if one US citizen sues another in the UK for libel
[as described in previous posts], can the defendant sue the plaintiff
back in US court for malicious prosecution, either purely on the grounds
that (even though it would have succeeded in either jurisdiction) the
plaintiff was attempting to pile the additional expense of travel on top
of the damages; or based on the attempt by the plaintiff to find a more
favorable, or at least more difficult to avoid default judgement, venue?
I would -think- that in order for someone in the US to prove malicious
prosecution or barratry with respect to a libel suit that was run in
the UK, it would probably have to be proved that there was no
-reasonable- chance that the original libel lawsuit could succeed
there, or that there were ulterior motives behind the filing of the
suit. But court rulings continually surprise me...


And that answers my question, basically.

Though, what's still not clear to me is whether it would have to be no
reasonable chance that the original lawsuit could succeed in the UK, or
no reasonable chance that it could succeed in the US? I.e., does the US
even recognize that UK law applies to such a case [where both parties
are resident US citizens and the allegedly libelous writing is posted in
an international forum]?
Mar 14 '06 #48
Jordan Abel <ra*******@gmai l.com> writes:
[stuff about libel]


Surely there must be some better place to conduct this
discussion.
--
"The lusers I know are so clueless, that if they were dipped in clue
musk and dropped in the middle of pack of horny clues, on clue prom
night during clue happy hour, they still couldn't get a clue."
--Michael Girdwood, in the monastery
Mar 14 '06 #49
On 2006-03-14, Ben Pfaff <bl*@cs.stanfor d.edu> wrote:
Jordan Abel <ra*******@gmai l.com> writes:
[stuff about libel]


Surely there must be some better place to conduct this
discussion.


Probably, but it came up in here, and the discussion was between people
who are regulars in here. I'm pretty much satisfied with the answers I
got.
Mar 14 '06 #50

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