Hello,
My ASP code creates an ADO recordset object on the server.
Later on the same page, I have a javascript code snippet that I use to
dynamically populate a drop-down box based on choices made in another
drop-down box. Can this javascript (or a server-side equivalent) access the
recordset object?
--Eric
13  2451 
Eric Robinson wrote: Hello,
My ASP code creates an ADO recordset object on the server.
Later on the same page, I have a javascript code snippet that I use to
dynamically populate a drop-down box based on choices made in another
drop-down box. Can this javascript (or a server-side equivalent)
access the recordset object?
Only if it is passed to the client-side code. I tend to avoid trying to use
ADO on the client, preferring to use XML, but here's one way to do it (this
example uses vbscript in the client-side script but it can easily be
rewritten to use jscript instead): http://www.davidpenton.com/testsite/...ver2client.asp
Bob Barrows
--
Microsoft MVP -- ASP/ASP.NET
Please reply to the newsgroup. The email account listed in my From
header is my spam trap, so I don't check it very often. You will get a
quicker response by posting to the newsgroup.
Hi,
My question was confusing because I myself am a little confused. I am not
using ADO on the client. The ADO connection and recordset are instantiated
on the server through ASP. My question is, can a server-side Javascript use
a server-side object that was created earlier on the same page by ASP code?
Or does the server-side Javascript have to instantiate its own separate
connection and recordset objects?
--Eric
"Bob Barrows [MVP]" <re******@NOyahoo.SPAMcom> wrote in message
news:OU**************@TK2MSFTNGP14.phx.gbl... Eric Robinson wrote: Hello,
My ASP code creates an ADO recordset object on the server.
Later on the same page, I have a javascript code snippet that I use to
dynamically populate a drop-down box based on choices made in another
drop-down box. Can this javascript (or a server-side equivalent)
access the recordset object?
Only if it is passed to the client-side code. I tend to avoid trying to
use
ADO on the client, preferring to use XML, but here's one way to do it
(this
example uses vbscript in the client-side script but it can easily be
rewritten to use jscript instead):
http://www.davidpenton.com/testsite/...ver2client.asp
Bob Barrows
--
Microsoft MVP -- ASP/ASP.NET
Please reply to the newsgroup. The email account listed in my From
header is my spam trap, so I don't check it very often. You will get a
quicker response by posting to the newsgroup.
"Eric Robinson" <eric @ pmcipa..{com}> wrote: My question was confusing because I myself am a little confused. I am not
using ADO on the client. The ADO connection and recordset are instantiated
on the server through ASP. My question is, can a server-side Javascript use
a server-side object that was created earlier on the same page by ASP code?
Or does the server-side Javascript have to instantiate its own separate
connection and recordset objects?
By the time client-side Javascript runs, all ASP code - whether
VBScript, Javascript, or another language - has finished and no longer
exists. That being the case, there's no way client-side Javascript can
use any ASP object.
--
Tim Slattery
MS MVP(DTS) Sl********@bls.gov
"Eric Robinson" <eric @ pmcipa..{com}> wrote in message
news:1Z*******************@fe05.lga... Hello,
My ASP code creates an ADO recordset object on the server.
Later on the same page, I have a javascript code snippet that I use to
dynamically populate a drop-down box based on choices made in another
drop-down box. Can this javascript (or a server-side equivalent) access
the recordset object?
in short - No - (but)
but in a disconnected way, -
that is, you can use ASP to create javascript arrays to hold the data which
javascript can then use -
howsomever - keep in mind that the javascript code won't be able to access
the database.
remember - once the user has received the page - its on his computer, and
not the server.
The user's browser is rendering a page which is the 'result' - or output
from an ASP script.
Javascript executes in the user's browser.
If its not in the same code its not usable. You will have to pass it (session
perhaps, etc) to get at it. I'm not sure how you are havinging seperate
serverside javascript though.. is it in include?
--
Curt Christianson
site: http://www.darkfalz.com
blog: http://blog.darkfalz.com
"Eric Robinson" wrote: Hi,
My question was confusing because I myself am a little confused. I am not
using ADO on the client. The ADO connection and recordset are instantiated
on the server through ASP. My question is, can a server-side Javascript use
a server-side object that was created earlier on the same page by ASP code?
Or does the server-side Javascript have to instantiate its own separate
connection and recordset objects?
--Eric
"Bob Barrows [MVP]" <re******@NOyahoo.SPAMcom> wrote in message
news:OU**************@TK2MSFTNGP14.phx.gbl... Eric Robinson wrote: Hello,
My ASP code creates an ADO recordset object on the server.
Later on the same page, I have a javascript code snippet that I use to
dynamically populate a drop-down box based on choices made in another
drop-down box. Can this javascript (or a server-side equivalent)
access the recordset object?
Only if it is passed to the client-side code. I tend to avoid trying to
use
ADO on the client, preferring to use XML, but here's one way to do it
(this
example uses vbscript in the client-side script but it can easily be
rewritten to use jscript instead):
http://www.davidpenton.com/testsite/...ver2client.asp
Bob Barrows
--
Microsoft MVP -- ASP/ASP.NET
Please reply to the newsgroup. The email account listed in my From
header is my spam trap, so I don't check it very often. You will get a
quicker response by posting to the newsgroup.
Forgive me for belaboring the issue, but you said:
"By the time client-side Javascript runs, all ASP code -
whether VBScript, Javascript, or another language - has finished..."
I understand that, but my real question is in reference to all SERVER-side
code.
Is it possible for JavaScript code running on the server to call methods in
objects instantiated by ASP code running on the server?
"Tim Slattery" <Sl********@bls.gov> wrote in message
news:3k********************************@4ax.com... "Eric Robinson" <eric @ pmcipa..{com}> wrote:
My question was confusing because I myself am a little confused. I am not
using ADO on the client. The ADO connection and recordset are instantiated
on the server through ASP. My question is, can a server-side Javascript
use
a server-side object that was created earlier on the same page by ASP
code?
Or does the server-side Javascript have to instantiate its own separate
connection and recordset objects?
By the time client-side Javascript runs, all ASP code - whether
VBScript, Javascript, or another language - has finished and no longer
exists. That being the case, there's no way client-side Javascript can
use any ASP object.
--
Tim Slattery
MS MVP(DTS)
Sl********@bls.gov
I'm probably goping about this all wrong and making it too hard. The
situation is pretty basic. In ASP I create two server-side recordsets, which
I'll call rsCircuses and rsClowns.
The records in rsCircuses look like this:
ID CircusName
1 Ringling Brothers
2 Barnum and Bailey
3 Circus Circus
4 Cirque du Soliel
5 etc.
The records in rsClowns look like this:
ID ClownName CircusID
1 Bozo 2
2 Dopey 4
3 Bingo 2
4 Poo Poo 3
5 etc.
rsCircuses is used to populate a drop-down menu. When the user chooses a
circus from the menu, I want to populate the second drop-down with records
picked from rsClowns based on the CircusID.
I was able to populate the first drop-down from rsCircuses, but I cannot
figure a way to populate the second drop-down based on a database query.
"Curt_C [MVP]" <software_at_darkfalz.com> wrote in message
news:5A**********************************@microsof t.com... If its not in the same code its not usable. You will have to pass it
(session
perhaps, etc) to get at it. I'm not sure how you are havinging seperate
serverside javascript though.. is it in include?
--
Curt Christianson
site: http://www.darkfalz.com
blog: http://blog.darkfalz.com
"Eric Robinson" wrote:
Hi,
My question was confusing because I myself am a little confused. I am not
using ADO on the client. The ADO connection and recordset are
instantiated
on the server through ASP. My question is, can a server-side Javascript
use
a server-side object that was created earlier on the same page by ASP
code?
Or does the server-side Javascript have to instantiate its own separate
connection and recordset objects?
--Eric
"Bob Barrows [MVP]" <re******@NOyahoo.SPAMcom> wrote in message
news:OU**************@TK2MSFTNGP14.phx.gbl... > Eric Robinson wrote:
>> Hello,
>>
>> My ASP code creates an ADO recordset object on the server.
>>
>> Later on the same page, I have a javascript code snippet that I use to
>> dynamically populate a drop-down box based on choices made in another
>> drop-down box. Can this javascript (or a server-side equivalent)
>> access the recordset object?
>>
> Only if it is passed to the client-side code. I tend to avoid trying to
> use
> ADO on the client, preferring to use XML, but here's one way to do it
> (this
> example uses vbscript in the client-side script but it can easily be
> rewritten to use jscript instead):
>
> http://www.davidpenton.com/testsite/...ver2client.asp
>
> Bob Barrows
> --
> Microsoft MVP -- ASP/ASP.NET
> Please reply to the newsgroup. The email account listed in my From
> header is my spam trap, so I don't check it very often. You will get a
> quicker response by posting to the newsgroup.
>
>
I think I got it.
I did everything on the server with ASP, but in the ASP code I actually
wrote out a client-side JavaScript, like this:
<%
Response.Write "<script language=""javascript"">"
Response.Write (... the javascript drop-down box code...)
Response.Write "</script>"
%>
It may be yoogly but it seems to work.
"Eric Robinson" <eric @ pmcipa..{com}> wrote in message
news:wJ*******************@fe05.lga... I'm probably goping about this all wrong and making it too hard. The
situation is pretty basic. In ASP I create two server-side recordsets,
which I'll call rsCircuses and rsClowns.
The records in rsCircuses look like this:
ID CircusName
1 Ringling Brothers
2 Barnum and Bailey
3 Circus Circus
4 Cirque du Soliel
5 etc.
The records in rsClowns look like this:
ID ClownName CircusID
1 Bozo 2
2 Dopey 4
3 Bingo 2
4 Poo Poo 3
5 etc.
rsCircuses is used to populate a drop-down menu. When the user chooses a
circus from the menu, I want to populate the second drop-down with records
picked from rsClowns based on the CircusID.
I was able to populate the first drop-down from rsCircuses, but I cannot
figure a way to populate the second drop-down based on a database query.
"Curt_C [MVP]" <software_at_darkfalz.com> wrote in message
news:5A**********************************@microsof t.com... If its not in the same code its not usable. You will have to pass it
(session
perhaps, etc) to get at it. I'm not sure how you are havinging seperate
serverside javascript though.. is it in include?
--
Curt Christianson
site: http://www.darkfalz.com
blog: http://blog.darkfalz.com
"Eric Robinson" wrote:
Hi,
My question was confusing because I myself am a little confused. I am
not
using ADO on the client. The ADO connection and recordset are
instantiated
on the server through ASP. My question is, can a server-side Javascript
use
a server-side object that was created earlier on the same page by ASP
code?
Or does the server-side Javascript have to instantiate its own separate
connection and recordset objects?
--Eric
"Bob Barrows [MVP]" <re******@NOyahoo.SPAMcom> wrote in message
news:OU**************@TK2MSFTNGP14.phx.gbl...
> Eric Robinson wrote:
>> Hello,
>>
>> My ASP code creates an ADO recordset object on the server.
>>
>> Later on the same page, I have a javascript code snippet that I use
>> to
>> dynamically populate a drop-down box based on choices made in another
>> drop-down box. Can this javascript (or a server-side equivalent)
>> access the recordset object?
>>
> Only if it is passed to the client-side code. I tend to avoid trying
> to
> use
> ADO on the client, preferring to use XML, but here's one way to do it
> (this
> example uses vbscript in the client-side script but it can easily be
> rewritten to use jscript instead):
>
> http://www.davidpenton.com/testsite/...ver2client.asp
>
> Bob Barrows
> --
> Microsoft MVP -- ASP/ASP.NET
> Please reply to the newsgroup. The email account listed in my From
> header is my spam trap, so I don't check it very often. You will get a
> quicker response by posting to the newsgroup.
>
>
Eric Robinson wrote: I'm probably goping about this all wrong and making it too hard. The
situation is pretty basic. In ASP I create two server-side
recordsets, which I'll call rsCircuses and rsClowns.
The records in rsCircuses look like this:
ID CircusName
1 Ringling Brothers
2 Barnum and Bailey
3 Circus Circus
4 Cirque du Soliel
5 etc.
The records in rsClowns look like this:
ID ClownName CircusID
1 Bozo 2
2 Dopey 4
3 Bingo 2
4 Poo Poo 3
5 etc.
rsCircuses is used to populate a drop-down menu. When the user
chooses a circus from the menu, I want to populate the second
drop-down with records picked from rsClowns based on the CircusID.
This i where client-side code is required (unless you want to submit back to
the server when the user picks a circus). Only client-side code can respond
to user events without involving a submission to a server page.
My preferred technique is to pass an xml document containing the clowns data
to the client-side jscript code, either via a data island (IE-only; see http://www.davidpenton.com/testsite/...ta.islands.asp) or by
response.writing a string containing the xml into a variable in a clientside
code block which is the techniques used in this example: http://www.davidpenton.com/testsite/...ver2client.asp
Youcan also use the xmlhttprequest object to request data from server pages
without submitting your form. This technique is illustrated in the dynamic
listbox demo which can be downloaded from here: http://www.thrasherwebdesign.com/ind...asp&c=&a=clear
For further questions about the client-side code, you need to post to a
relevant newsgroup. I suggest m.p.scripting.jscript.
Bob Barrows
--
Microsoft MVP - ASP/ASP.NET
Please reply to the newsgroup. This email account is my spam trap so I
don't check it very often. If you must reply off-line, then remove the
"NO SPAM"
"Eric Robinson" <eric @ pmcipa..{com}> wrote in message
news:xY******************@fe05.lga...
:I think I got it.
:
: I did everything on the server with ASP, but in the ASP code I actually
: wrote out a client-side JavaScript, like this:
:
: <%
: Response.Write "<script language=""javascript"">"
: Response.Write (... the javascript drop-down box code...)
: Response.Write "</script>"
: %>
:
: It may be yoogly but it seems to work.
I'm not sure what yoogly is but there is no ASP vs javascript code. Replace
ASP with VBScript.
And, in your client-side script block, use <script type="text/javascript">
language= is deprecated on the client-side.
--
Roland Hall
/* This information is distributed in the hope that it will be useful, but
without any warranty; without even the implied warranty of merchantability
or fitness for a particular purpose. */
Technet Script Center - http://www.microsoft.com/technet/scriptcenter/
WSH 5.6 Documentation - http://msdn.microsoft.com/downloads/list/webdev.asp
MSDN Library - http://msdn.microsoft.com/library/default.asp
Eric Robinson wrote: Forgive me for belaboring the issue, but you said:
"By the time client-side Javascript runs, all ASP code -
whether VBScript, Javascript, or another language - has
finished..."
I understand that, but my real question is in reference
to all SERVER-side code.
Is it possible for JavaScript code running on the server
to call methods in objects instantiated by ASP code running
on the server?
JScript, yes. JavaScript, no. All of my ASP scripts are written in JScript.
But this suggests you don't fully understand the dynamic between client-side
and server-side code:
"My ASP code creates an ADO recordset object on the server.
Later on the same page, I have a javascript code snippet
that I use to dynamically populate a drop-down box based
on choices made in another drop-down box. Can this
javascript (or a server-side equivalent) access the
recordset object?"
There is no such thing as "later on in the same page", as far as server-side
objects care. Those objects (including the implicit Request, Response,
Server and Session objects, not to mention the ones you explicitly created)
are all GONE before <html> is parsed by the browser. They are LONG GONE by
the time <select> is parsed, EXTRA LONG GONE by the time your browser
renders the select element onscreen, and EXTRA-EXTRA LONG GONE by the time a
client event is fired.
--
Dave Anderson
Unsolicited commercial email will be read at a cost of $500 per message. Use
of this email address implies consent to these terms. Please do not contact
me directly or ask me to contact you directly for assistance. If your
question is worth asking, it's worth posting.
>>Is it possible for JavaScript code running on the server to call methods
in objects instantiated by ASP code running on the server?
What's the difference between "JavaScript code running on the server " and
ASP code? Isn't code running on the server already ASP code?
Bob Lehmann
"Eric Robinson" <eric @ pmcipa..{com}> wrote in message
news:nI*******************@fe05.lga... Forgive me for belaboring the issue, but you said:
"By the time client-side Javascript runs, all ASP code -
whether VBScript, Javascript, or another language - has finished..."
I understand that, but my real question is in reference to all SERVER-side
code.
Is it possible for JavaScript code running on the server to call methods
in objects instantiated by ASP code running on the server?
"Tim Slattery" <Sl********@bls.gov> wrote in message
news:3k********************************@4ax.com... "Eric Robinson" <eric @ pmcipa..{com}> wrote:
My question was confusing because I myself am a little confused. I am
notusing ADO on the client. The ADO connection and recordset are
instantiatedon the server through ASP. My question is, can a server-side Javascript
use
a server-side object that was created earlier on the same page by ASP
code?
Or does the server-side Javascript have to instantiate its own separate
connection and recordset objects?
By the time client-side Javascript runs, all ASP code - whether
VBScript, Javascript, or another language - has finished and no longer
exists. That being the case, there's no way client-side Javascript can
use any ASP object.
--
Tim Slattery
MS MVP(DTS)
Sl********@bls.gov
I have been saying "ASP" when I often meant server-side Never having written
anything in Jscript, I had Vbscript and ASP tied together in my mind.
Vbscript. Sorry about that. Anyway, the problem is solved. Thanks for all
the feedback.
"Eric Robinson" <eric @ pmcipa..{com}> wrote in message
news:1Z*******************@fe05.lga... Hello,
My ASP code creates an ADO recordset object on the server.
Later on the same page, I have a javascript code snippet that I use to
dynamically populate a drop-down box based on choices made in another
drop-down box. Can this javascript (or a server-side equivalent) access
the recordset object?
--Eric This thread has been closed and replies have been disabled. Please start a new discussion. Similar topics
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